One of the most famous elements in the story of the baptism of Jesus is the pronouncement from heaven: “This is my Son, whom I love; with him I am well pleased.”

That’s how Matthew records it, and it’s the version I grew up with. (Though I hear the King James in my head: “This is my beloved son…”)

Mark records the voice as saying: “You are my Son, whom I love; with you I am well pleased.” Same idea, but speaking directly to Jesus. Luke records it as Mark did. John mentions no voice, just the coming of the Spirit in the form of a dove.

Who was the voice for? It doesn’t really seem to have been for John. He doesn’t mention it when he is quoted as describing the event in the gospel of John, chapter 1. And he later comes to have real doubts as to Jesus’ identity. That seems strange for one who heard confirmation from heaven (though it’s surprising how often people doubt visions and voices in Scripture).

There’s no indication that anyone started following Jesus because of the voice. Either no one was around to hear it, no one understood it, or they were unmoved by the experience.

It almost seems to me that the voice was for Jesus. It reminds me of this incident from John 12:

“Then a voice came from heaven, “I have glorified it, and will glorify it again.” The crowd that was there and heard it said it had thundered; others said an angel had spoken to him.” (John 12:28–29)

The crowd didn’t seem to hear what the voice said. They heard it as thunder or as an angel speaking to Jesus. No one seems to have heard the message.

Something similar happened at Saul’s conversion:

“My companions saw the light, but they did not understand the voice of him who was speaking to me.” (Acts 22:9)

What do you think? Was the voice from heaven there for Jesus’ sake? Was it for John? Or did it serve another purpose?